DAVIDSON MCQS PDF

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Davidson Mcqs Pdf

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MCQ's for Davidson's Principles & Practice of Medicine includes multiple choice questions. which are on “Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine”. Microbiology For Dummies 1st Edition PDF Free Download. In this part of the article, you will be able to access biosworisbeca.ga file of MCQ's for Davidson's Principles & Practice of Medicine 4th Edition PDF by using our direct . One Thousand MCQs for Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine Michael J. Ford. حجم الكتاب: MB. صيغة الكتاب: pdf. مرات التحميل:

Harry Potter. Popular Features. New in Description A book of 1, 5-part MCQs with full descriptive answers, arranged in 20 chapters to correspond to the 17th edition of Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine. Chapters cover all body systems. In this way the book helps students understand the subject, and retain their knowledge during revision. A new author has been enlisted and the questions have been tested to ensure that the level is appropriate for the medical student.

This book can be used in two ways, students can read the appropriate part of Davidson's and test understanding with the MCQs, or they can attempt the MCQs, and then build on their knowledge by referring to Davidson's. Product details Format Paperback pages Dimensions x x Table of contents Section 1: Questions Section 2: Answers Genetic Factors in Disease.

Charcot joints: The following may be features of frontal lobe dysfunction: True b Hereditary motor sensory neuropathy. The following are causes of acute transient visual impairment: Hyposmia may arise secondary to: False b There may be atrophy of the Betz cells in the motor cortex. False b Fall in blood pressure. True c Loss of bladder control.

False e It causes a delay in visual evoked potentials. The following typically occur within the first 24 hours of complete cervical cord transection: True c Papilloedema. False c Polyarteritis nodosa. False e Lead poisoning. True c Apraxia of gait. True b Social disinhibition. False d Antibiotic therapy.

False c Seizures. True e Are usually hot and swollen. False e Gastric dilatation. True e A frontal meningioma. True c Electromyography shows chronic partial denervation.

1000 MCQs For Davidson's Principles and Practice Of Medicine

True c Motor neuron disease. In motor neuron disease: True d Migrainous aura. True b Are often painful. True d May affect the shoulders in syringomyelia.

True d Brisk reflexes. True e Glaucoma. True d There should be no signs of sensory loss.

Causes of a mononeuropathy include: False c May be caused by neurosyphilis. False b Amaurosis fugax. True b Migraine. Choreic movements are: False c The Gausserian ganglion. False b Shock-like assymetrical and irregular. False e The cavernous sinus. False b An ipsilateral hemiparesis. The following may give rise to a pseudobulbar palsy a Poliomyelitis. True b The facial nerve. False e Fatiguable muscle strength. True e A lesion of the foramen magnum. A small pupil may be seen in: True e Otosclerosis.

True b Gentamicin therapy. True d An acoustic neuroma.

False e Rhythmical and oscillatory. False b Syringobulbia. False e A grasp reflex. Clinical features of a unilateral lesion of the cerebellopontine angle may be: False c Ipsilateral weakness of the lower face.

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True c Horner's syndrome. False e Multiple sclerosis. True d A sign of restlessness. True e A pontine lesion. True c A patient who is blind. False b Elderly patients. Facial sensory loss may occur with a lesion of: False d Hypotonia. False d A pseudobulbar dysarthria. True d The Geniculate ganglion. False c Huntington's chorea. True b A lesion of the pons. False d Occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery.

True d Terminally ill patients taking morphine for analgesia. Nystagmus may be seen in: Features of an upper motor neuron lesion are: False c Weakness of individual muscles. False c Brief. False b Wasted muscles. Sensorineural deafness may occur secondary to: True d A patient with cerebellar dysfunction.

True d When damaged may result in a positive Romberg's test. False b Decussate in the midbrain. Treatment of endocarditis: Flucloxacillin with gentamicin or rifampicin is the medical treatment of choice but valve replacement is not appropriate. There is well-proven benefit. The fibres of the dorsal column pathway: It may also be a digoxin effect. True e Are spared following occlusion of the anterior spinal artery.

For two reasons.

The ECG: Insertion of a prosthetic heart valve into a drug addict is very likely to lead to prosthetic valve endocarditis subsequently because of their continuing habit. False c Are affected in the deficiency of vitamin B Cardiac dysrhythmias: Bile salts are essential for micelle formation. Angiodysplasia of the colon: It usually occurs in the right side of the colon.

Digoxin slows the ventricular rate during paroxysms of atrial fibrillation but does not prevent them. Particularly congenital complete heart block.

1000 MCQs for Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine

It produces a fibrotic reaction. Colorectal cancer: Metaplastic polyps have no malignant potential. Chronic bronchial sepsis: In the small intestine: Haemoptysis is also seen with dry bronchiectasis. Cardiac toxoplasmosis is usually diagnosed at postmortem. Hyperglycaemia is teratogenic in early pregnancy. Thyroid function tests: Suppression of TSH is the first biochemical sign of hyperthyroidism. In primary hypothyroidism. Low triiodothyronine may result from intercurrent illness.

Brain and heart. CNS lymphomas are usually single. TSH is high. In secondary diabetes: Secondary diabetes causes all the same complications as idiopathic diabetes. In hypoglycaemia: The anti-insulin hormones can bring the patient round and the insulin which caused the coma can 'wear off'. Diabetic pregnancy: Neural tube defects are two to three times more common.

In insulin treatment: These are signs of type 1 DM. It is helpful if it can be done but failure does not rule out the diagnosis. The anatomy of the heart: If you stand on the patient's right side with your right hand across the sternum and cardiac apex. It is associated with upper lobe fibrosis and aortic incompetence.

True Explanation: It usually occurs weeks after the episode of diarrhoea. In an ECG. Virtually always and it is a useful marker of response to treatment and relapse. The right ventricle presses against the sternum. Ankylosing spondylitis: Commonly affects several joints and often presents with back pain. With regard to reactive arthritis: The condition of 'T3 toxicosis'. Concerning osteomyelitis: It is often difficult to remove all dead infected bone.

In gout: Although there are other causes of a sinus including actinomycosis. Rheumatoid factor is: Nodules are associated with high titres of rheumatoid factor. In acute myocardial infarction: The diagnosis should be questioned if the jugular venous pressure is not raised False Streptokinase should not be given until the diagnosis has been confirmed by two sets of raised cardiac enzymes False Dysrhythmias in the early hours after presentation carry a poor prognosis False Lidocaine should routinely be given to prevent dysrhythmias False Rupture of the interventricular septum is an uncommon but serious complication True Explanation: This is of no proven value.

It is important to take blood cultures over at least 24 hour period to make the diagnosis False Transthoracic echocardiography is a sensitive means of making or confirming the diagnosis False Most patients with Staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia have endocarditis False Viral endocarditis leads to valvular abnormality False In patients with a new stroke. A tall R wave in V1 may be a sign of right ventricular hypertrophy True Explanation: It may also be a digoxin effect Question 3.

In acute dissection of the thoracic aorta: It is much higher. If gentamicin is used for treatment.

When examining the heart. Anterior myocardial infarction is caused by disease of the left anterior descending artery. Acute aortic stenosis may occur False The patient may develop myocardial ischaemia True Explanation: The coronary ostia may be occluded by the dissection Question 7.

Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks are necessary to cure viridans type streptococcal endocarditis False Staphylococcal endocarditis on the tricuspid valve in a drug addict is treated with flucloxacillin and valve replacement False Large vegetations are an indication for surgery True Explanation: Hypertension should be treated aggressively True Explanation: Nitroprusside or labetolol infusion is a recommended treatment.

Treatment is of no proven benefit in patients over the age of 70 years False The symptoms of phaeochromocytoma include headache. Combination antibiotic therapy is almost always appropriate for endocarditis True Explanation: And lung abscesses e. Digoxin toxicity may cause supraventricular tachycardia True Explanation: A bulla True Explanation: Anxiety False Benzodiazepine overdose True Explanation: Drugs such as benzodiazepines depress the respiratory centre. In ischaemic heart disease: Prevalence is increased in chronic renal failure True Explanation: Cushing's syndrome.

Cyanosis in the early stages False By A. An alcohol intake of 18 units per week in a man increases the risk of ischaemic heart disease False A high plasma fibrinogen reduces the risk False Question 9.

Hypoventilation occurs in the following: Central sleep apnoea syndrome True Explanation: Alveolar hypoventilation is a key feature. Pneumothorax is a recognised complication of: Rib fracture True Explanation: Pneumothorax can occur secondary to trauma. Untreated hypothyroidism predisposes to it True Explanation: Hypothyroidism causes hypercholesterolaemia and atherosclerosis. The following are features of fibrosing alveolitis: Cough True Explanation: Patients usually present with cough and breathlessness.

ACE inhibitors are the drugs of choice for hypertension in pregnancy False Addison's disease should be considered a possible cause in a hypertensive patient with hirsutism False Question 8.

Oral treatment producing a fall in diastolic blood pressure of 20 mmHg over 24 hours might be regarded as successful treatment of accelerated hypertension True Explanation: Clubbing of the fingers in the majority of cases True Explanation: Digoxin is effective in preventing paroxysms of atrial fibrillation False A QRS width less than 3 small squares on the ECG indicates that a tachycardia is supraventricular True Explanation: Bullae can be single or multiple.

Complete heart block may be asymptomatic True Explanation: Exercise False Question Polycythaemia may precipitate myocardial ischaemia True Explanation: By increasing blood viscosity and impairing blood flow. Severe kyphoscoliosis True Explanation: Severe kyphoscoliosis can produce mechanical ventilation problems because of the changed curvature of the spine.

Ciprofloxacin True Explanation: Ciprofloxacin is a useful agent. Legionella pneumophila True Explanation: Influenza A virus True Explanation: Primary influenzal pneumonia or complicated by bacteria. If there is bile salt deficiency. Ethambutol True Explanation: Ethambutol is another major. Causes of life-threatening pneumonia or pneumonitis in adults include: Pneumocystis carinii True Explanation: Pneumocystis carinii infection is usually seen in AIDS.

Can usually be cured with oral antibiotics False May lead to pulmonary fibrosis True Explanation: It produces a fibrotic reaction Question Long-chain triglycerides are transported from the gut in the lymph as chylomicrons False There is no lymphatic tissue False The entire mucosa is turned over every weeks False Is the site of most nutrient absorption True Explanation: The small intestine is the main area for the breakdown and absorption of nutrients.

Pleural aspiration is useful in the following situations: An empyema will require tube or surgical drainage for treatment. May arise from a metaplastic polyp False By A. Useful drugs for tuberculosis include: Piperacillin False Isoniazid True Explanation: Isoniazid is a major. Relieving breathlessness in patients with malignant effusions True Explanation: Drainage in malignant effusions is often very helpful if litres of fluid are removed or a shunt can be inserted.

Is an uncommon feature of cystic fibrosis False Typically is caused by unusual. Amikacin True Explanation: Amikacin is a useful i. Respiratory syncytial virus False Staphylococcus aureus True Explanation: Prevent the patients affected or not leaving the ward for investigations. Send the patients home False Culture stools and vomitus for viruses False Treat everyone with metronidazole False Exclude visitors from the ward True Explanation: To prevent further spread.

A 'fatty liver' may represent: Simply an obese person False Alcoholism True Explanation: A common 'early' abnormality. Coeliac disease: The classic cause. The differential diagnosis of acute bloody diarrhoea includes: Amoebic dysentery True Explanation: This has much mucus and tenesmus.

Campylobacter enteritis True Explanation: The amount of blood is usually small. All contain gluten Question In a ward with several patients where two of the nurses have had much vomiting and some diarrhoea over a hour period. There are further polyps in most cases False Involvement of local lymph nodes does not affect prognosis False Obstruction is more common in right compared with left-sided lesions False Question ERCP is used in the diagnosis of pancreatic disease but can precipitate an acute attack.

Hepatitis C is not a cause of hepatocellular carcinoma False Hepatitis A is a cause of chronic liver disease False Hepatitis E can be acquired by sharing needles False A person with only a hepatitis B core IgG test positive is infectious for hepatitis B False Question Traveller's diarrhoea False Cholera False Question Unless the investigation was absolutely vital Question The diagnosis is incorrect if a patient fails to respond to a gluten-free diet False Requires a diet free from wheat.

Haemorrhagic colitis caused by E. Hypocalcaemia False Hyperlipidaemia True Explanation: There is an association with hyperlipidaemia. The following are correct: Hepatitis B can be acquired from serous fluid from a wound True Explanation: This is the likely mode of horizontal transmission among siblings in developing countries. Causes of acute pancreatitis include: Alcohol True Explanation: Most cases are associated with gall stones or high alcohol intake.

Renal cell carcinoma False By A. Intravenous pyelography is the investigation of choice to exclude urinary obstruction False Question 3.

The following are causes of chronic renal failure: Gout True Explanation: In renal failure. In patients with acute renal failure: Sodium bicarbonate should be given routinely False Most patients with acute renal failure need long-term dialysis False Skin turgor is a reliable guide to the need for i. Polycystic kidney disease False Major arterial surgery True Explanation: Major arterial surgery can cause renal ischaemia and acute tubular necrosis.

Non-insulin-dependent diabetes True Explanation: Both insulin-dependent and non-insulin-dependent diabetes cause renal failure. Acute renal failure is a likely complication of the following: Sepsis or sepsis syndrome True Explanation: Commonly caused by prerenal factors such as sepsis syndrome. Causes osteoporosis True Explanation: Also cardiorespiratory disease. This distinguishes renal failure from.

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Diabetes mellitus True Explanation: Although the full-blown nephrotic syndrome is a relatively uncommon presentation of diabetic nephropathy. Retroperitoneal tumours False Cardiogenic shock True Question 2. Hypothyroidism False Question 4. The following may cause the nephrotic syndrome: Minimal change disease True Explanation: This is the characteristic disease associated with nephrotic syndrome. Rarely it is caused by a glomerulonephritis associated with the disease itself.

It is important to measure urine flow in the fluid management of acute renal failure. Atherosclerosis True Explanation: As a result of extrarenal or intrarenal obstruction to the renal arterial circulation.

The diagnosis is made by a high-dose dexamethasone test False Serum adrenocorticotrophic hormone ACTH is important in diagnosing the underlying cause True Explanation: Treatment with beta-blockers False Rheumatoid arthritis True Explanation: It may be caused by amyloid associated with rheumatoid arthritis or by drugs used to treat the disease gold or penicillamine. Analgesic abuse True Explanation: Diplopia worse on looking to the right True Explanation: Diplopia is maximal on looking in the direction of the primary action of the muscle.

Parkinson's disease is associated with: Loss of dopamine transmission True Explanation: Although the mechanism is unclear. Sterile pyuria is most likely caused by tuberculosis False Estrogen supplements may reduce their frequency in postmenopausal women True Explanation: Elasticity of the urethra is reduced postmenopausally and this can lead to infection. Remember other higher cortical functions. Features of a right sixth nerve palsy include: Convergent strabismus True Explanation: Complete paralysis of the lateral rectus leaves the medial rectus unopposed hence producing a convergent strabismus.

Renal artery stenosis: Is invariably caused by atherosclerosis False May cause renal failure in patients given ACE angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor therapy True Explanation: Fibromuscular hyperplasia and radiation fibrosis are two other pathologies which can cause renal artery stenosis.

Can be reliably diagnosed by auscultating for renal bruits False May be seen on ultrasound as a unilateral small kidney True Explanation: Hypoperfusion causes reduction in renal size. Local estrogen therapy helps.

False image occurs further to the left than the true image False Images become increasingly separated on looking to the left False Question The following are features of urinary infections in elderly people: Patients usually complain of dysuria False They may present with falls True They may present with constipation True Explanation: Or it may be coexistent.

Is a cause of hypertension True Explanation: The following are true: There is weakness of elbow extension in a crutch palsy True Explanation: The triceps is affected in a crutch palsy. Wasting of the hypothenar eminence occurs in the carpal tunnel syndrome False Abduction of the thumb is impaired in an ulnar nerve lesion False The index finger is hyperextended at the metacarpophalangeal MCP joint in an ulnar nerve lesion False Sensation is lost over the whole of the back of the hand in radial nerve damage False Question 8.

Cogwheel rigidity True Explanation: Cogwheel rigidity is a superimposed tremor on the 'lead pipe' increase in tone. False image parallel to the true image True Explanation: Unlike a superior oblique palsy. A cerebellar vermis lesion will result in a marked intention tremor False Macular sparing is a characteristic of lesions affecting the optic tract False In a patient with marked visuo-spatial inattention.

Denervation of the muscles of the leg False Episode of visual disturbance True Explanation: Disturbances of visual acuity are an early sign. Development of antibiotic resistance during therapy False The causative organism True Explanation: Neisseria meningitidis has a lower mortality than S. Hypocalcaemia causes prolongation of the prothrombin time False The prothrombin time is a sensitive test of hepatocellular dysfunction True Explanation: Because hepatocellular dysfunction impairs the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.

The following are more suggestive of dementia than of depression: Several episodes of antisocial behaviour True Explanation: Antisocial behaviour is more in keeping with the personality change of dementia.

MR scanning is the preferred imaging technique. Outcome from bacterial meningitis relates to: Age of patient True Explanation: Mortality is highest in elderly people. In a young female with paraplegia. Listeria is intrinsically resistant to all cephalosporins. The effect of heparin is reversed by vitamin K False Deep venous thrombosis can be reliably diagnosed by measuring fibrin degradation products FDPs False Question Mutism False Duration of symptoms less than 1 month False Worsening of symptoms during the early morning False Marked impairment of concentration False Question The following may cause a microcytic anaemia: With respect to lumbar puncture: Coagulopathy is a contraindication True Explanation: CSF concentration of antibiotic True Explanation: The CSF concentration of antibiotic needs to exceed by fold the minimum inhibitory concentration of the infecting organism.

Periventricular lesions seen on MR scanning True Explanation: Periventricular plaques would imply disease remote from the spinal cord. This is used as a measure of heparinisation. CNS immunology is disturbed in multiple sclerosis. This is the primary reason why i. Time to first administration of antibiotic True Explanation: Delays lead to increased mortality and morbidity.

A neutrophil count of only 0. Pen injectors are reserved for the small minority who take four or more injections per day False Only patients who cannot be controlled with once-daily insulin should have two or more injections False Insulin should be started without delay in a thin hyperglycaemic patient with ketonuria True Explanation: Disease of the connective tissue, joints, and bones. Disease of the skin. Disease of the nervous system. Principales of critical care medicine. Principales of oncological and palliative care.

Principales of drug therapy and management of poisoning.New in WhiteKnightLove 7. The following drugs cause cholestatic jaundice: False d Pregnancy.

True d Atrial septal defect. Ajay rated it liked it Jan 02, False e Diarrhoea commonly results in vitamin B12 deficiency. True e Omeprazole. Secondary diabetes causes all the same complications as idiopathic diabetes.

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